Newton's third law says this:
When one body exerts a force on a second body, the second body simultaneously exerts a force equal in magnitude and opposite in direction on the first body.
Yes, I know Newton's third law.
2 simultaneous forces such that A=-B.
Then, YOU FAILED TO CORRECTLY APPLY THIS LAW TO THE TWO BOATS ON A LAKE EXAMPLE.
No. I correctly applied it, ending up with the conclusion that A=-B, just as the law dictates.
On the other hand, you completely violated it, saying that X is pulling on the rope with a force of A, but the rope is pulling back with a force of -A+B (or with your new ones, X is pulling with a force of -A and the rope is pulling back with a force of A+B.
Are A and -A+B (or -A and A+B) equal and opposite? No. As such, you are violating Newton's third law.
The only way out of it is if you admit that X is actually pulling on the rope with a force of A-B (or -A-B in your new labels).
So do you admit that X is actually pulling on the rope with a force of A-B thus violating the description of the scenario, or do you admit that you are violating Newton's third law as you have unbalanced action-reaction pairs?
remember, it was your friends here that demanded the direction of the force be properly accounted for, so I fulfilled their wish accordingly.
No. You didn't.
You didn't need to change A to -A.
A can be negative.
For example, Henry is pulling on the rope with a force of A, where A=-350 N.
There is no need to have A be negative.
However making A negative does show your dishonesty even more, as it shows your double counting more easily, as you continually have expressions of the form A+B, almost like A and B are the same thing and you are just counting them twice.
Boat X is pulling with a force of -A.
And if this is the case, then the only force X is capable of applying to the rope is -A. In order for X to apply any other force to the rope, it needs to be pulling with that force.
Reaction force from boat X on the rope: -B.
So do you admit X is pulling on the rope with a force of -B in addition to the force of -A?
If not, X CANNOT be exerting a force of -B in addition to the force of -A on the rope.
You must have either -A is that reaction force and thus -A=-B, or you have X pulling on the rope with a force of -A-B.
Anything else is a violation of Newton's laws of motions with forces appearing by magic.
SEE HOW YOU FAILED TO APPLY THE THIRD LAW?
No. I applied it correctly, considering 2 bodies and ensuring their force was equal and opposite.
X is pulling on the rope with force A, then the rope is pulling on X with force -A.
In order to satisfy Newton's third law, the rope CANNOT be pulling on X with a force of anything other than -A.
If the rope pulls on X with a force of -A+B, then X MUST pull on the rope with a force of A-B.
For any 2 entities, the force one applies to the other must be equal but opposite the force the other applies to it.
i.e. A=-B. There is no other way.
When one body exerts a force on a second body, the second body simultaneously exerts a force equal in magnitude and opposite in direction on the first body.
That's right, no magic invention of forces at all.
X is exerting a force on the rope, thus the rope is exerting an equal but opposite force on X. It doesn't magically double the forces.
This is what you are missing.
No. I am missing nothing.
What you are missing is that Newton's third law doesn't magically make new forces appear.
If X is pulling the rope with a force of A, that is all X is applying to the rope.
There is no distinction between A being a force which then has a reaction force, or A being a reaction force.
There is no distinction between an action force and a reaction force.
It is impossible to tell the 2 apart.
Newton's third law is fine.
Not with your analysis.
With your analysis you have X pulling on the rope with a force of -A and the rope pulling back with a force of A+B.
The only way for Newton's third law to be fine is if the rope is pulling back with a force of A, or if X is pulling with a force of -A-B, which would then violate the situation.
The RE requested that I introduce the proper labeling of forces (their direction) in the analysis.
Let us see now what happens when we apply this basic requirement to jack's piece of crap analysis.
Yes, when you were using numbers, claiming the force one is applying is 350 N and the force the other is applying is 125 N.
In this case you have both pushing the rope in the same direction.
My perfectly sound analysis is not crap in any way and easily meets these requirements.
Notice a key thing I said (which is just Newton's third law?
A=-B. i.e. one person is pulling with a force of say 350 N, while the other is pulling with a force of -350 N. One is positive, one is negative. Thus they can both be pulling on the rope. No problem at all.
As the string isn't moving, the net force on the string is 0, then -A + B = 0, so -A = -B, so A=B.
Yes, by changing A to -A, you just get that.
So now, X, pulling with a force of -A, is equal and opposite to Y pulling with a force of B.
Still holding to Newton's third law of motion, still having no net force on the string.
reached the amazing conclusion that A=B.
Yes, has reached the completely unsurprising conclusion that is Newton's third law of motion.
It takes a single counterexample to show this.
And so far all you have done is baselessly asserted that they exist.
It is no different to claiming that if X is pulling on the rope with a force of -A, the rope will pull back with a force of B, which is different to force A.
It is just baselessly asserting pure bullshit.
The single counterexample needs to be physically possible.
By the very hypothesis, forces A and B are not equal.
They are of different magnitude.
Not according to Newton's third law of motion.
That creates a quite explicit relationship between them of A=-B. There is no other option.
Last time I checked, 2 forces that are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction are equal in magnitude, not different in magnitude.
You will pull with a different force than any of your relatives, neighbors, countrymen.
Not when pulling on the same rope in opposite directions with no one else there while holding the rope under tension.
Forces A and B WILL ALWAYS BE DIFFERENT.
Yes, one will be positive and one will be negative, such that A=-B.
That is the requirement to hold a rope in tension. The tension in the rope will be the magnitude of the forces. T=|A|=|B|.
If the forces are different you no longer have a rope under tension (not unless you move away from the ideal case and consider the mass of the string, but you aren't doing that in your analysis).
Force A can never equal force B.
So you are claiming that for an action there cannot be an equal but opposite reaction?
Even if we had, as an example, force A = 100.000,000,000,021 N and force B = 100.000,000,000,034 N, it would still NOT satisfy the RE requirement which is this: |A|=|B|.
And it wouldn't be the ideal case of the mass-less string. Instead, you would have to consider the mass of the string and realise that X isn't just pulling boat Y, it is also pulling the string.
In this case, as B is greater Y will be pulling the string towards them.
The net force on X will be A. The net force on Y will be -B. The net force on the string will be B-A. This will result in a slight acceleration of the string.
Note the situation you are trying to model, the gravitational attraction between the 2 objects.
This force is given by the equation:
F=GMm/r^2.
This will be the same for each body, they must be EXACTLY the same.
So the RE analysis works fine for a massless string, equivalent to the situation you are trying to model. On the other hand, your analysis fails miserably and has you double counting forces.
The RE analysis leads directly to the ONLY case which can never be experienced in reality.
No. It leads directly to the requirement for the ONLY cases which can be experienced in reality, A=-B.
Your analysis leads directly to a conclusion which will only hold when A=B=0.
You have X pulling on the rope with a force of A, but applying a force of A-B to the rope.
Does A=A-B? Only when B is 0.
So for any non-zero value of A or B, you have a contradiction.
For example, in the case above, Henry is pulling on the rope with a force of -350 N, which contradicts your claim that the net force on the rope from X is -475 N.
Last time I checked, -350 does not equal -475.
Do you think they are equal?
If not, then how can you claim there is no contradiction?
If X is pulling with a force of A, then the only force applied to the rope will be -A.
You said this: Newton's third law dictates A=-B.
But now, by your own priceless analysis, A=B!
No, by your manipulation of my analysis.
A=-B, when X is pulling with a force of A and Y is pulling with a force of B.
You are changing it so X is instead pulling with a force of -A.
So if you take note that your "A" is really -A, you end up with this:
(-A)=B.
i.e. A=-B, just like before and just like Newton's law dictates.
The other way is to teak Newton's law slightly, for example, having the action force be -A, and the reaction force be B.
Then -A=-B or A=B.
Newton's third law has to be properly applied.
As I did.
You have X pulling the rope with force A, and the rope pulling X with a force B.
As per Newton's third law, A=-B. That is the only option (which is equivalent to changing A to -A)
Instead you have X pulling the rope with force -A, and the rope pulling with force A+B.
So by Newton's third law, A=A+B. Does that make sense to you?
The other option is an even more direct contradiction, where you have forces appear by magic, where X is pulling the rope with a force of -A, but the net force on the rope from X is -A-B.
Does -A=-A-B?
Only when B is 0.
So no, your equations fail miserably.
Net force on the string: [-A - B] + [A + B]
No, it isn't.
As X is pulling with force -A, and Y is pulling with force B, the net force on the string will be -A+B.
In order for the net force to be as you claim, you need X pulling with a force of -A-B, and Y pulling with a force of A+B, directly violating the description of the situation.
There's a massive contradiction. You say first that the force applied to the rope by the person on boat X is -A, and then you say it's -A-B. Can't have both.
There is no contradiction because I said no such thing.
Yes, you have repeatedly refused to admit that.
But the situation clearly described X as pulling the rope with a force of -A (at least now that you have changed the sign of the force).
But your analysis dictates that X is applying a force of -A-B to the rope.
But the only way for X to be applying a force to the rope is by pulling on it. That means your analysis dictates that X is pulling the rope with a force of -A-B.
What are the forces acting on the left end side of the rope?
-A and -B.
This is claiming that X is pulling on the rope with a force of -A-B. If X isn't pulling with this force, then how is X applying this force to the rope?
But they include TWICE THE FORCES NEEDED in the Newtonian system.
Yes, because you are counting the forces twice.
When one body exerts a force on a second body, the second body simultaneously exerts a force equal in magnitude and opposite in direction on the first body.
Yes, so if the net force on X from the rope is A+B, then X must be pulling on the rope with a force of -A-B, but that goes directly against the description of the situation where X is pulling with a force of -A.
Let us apply the correct labeling of forces again.
If you are going to replace A with -A, you need to do that in all cases.
This is the fixed version:
The net force on boat x is A.
The net force on boat y is -A.
The net force on the string is (-A +A)=0, so 0=0.
Not only is jack's analysis contradicting his basic requirement that A=-B
Not when you do it honestly, and realise that by substituting -A into A, you need to change the requirement to -A=-B.
but also his forces now do not cancel each other to add up to zero; instead they add up to -2A!
Only when you replace half the A's with -A.
When you do it properly then you have -A+A=0
Let us remember what jack said:
Newton's third law dictates A=-B.
Yes, when you have X applying a force of A and Y applying a force of B.
That is because the force applied by one must be equal and opposite the force applied by the other.
If you instead have X applying a force of -A and Y applying a force of B, the requirement changes such as -A=-B, or A=B.
It only so happens that the correct labeling of forces leads directly to the conclusion that A = B. A most troubling contradiction in view of the quotes referenced above.
No it doesn't. Not when you note that this is equivalent to my claim.
You have just changed A to -A.
If you take note of that and apply it to my conclusion:
A=-B (my claim)
-A=-B (subbed in your substitution)
A=B (simplified).
So no contradiction, no problem.
It just appears like one because of your dishonesty.
It would be akin to me saying that your analysis originally had the net force on X be -A+B, but now it is A+B. Is that a contradiction?
Not when you consider that the latter is a result of substituting -A into A for the former.
But I understand, you need to resort to this blatant dishonesty otherwise your analysis would be exposed as bullshit straight away.
You grasping at whatever straws you can to try and make a pathetic attempt (your best attempt) at justifying the mountains of bullshit you have spouted and "refuting" the facts we have provided.
Any two human beings, when forces will be analyzed at the most infinitesimal level (we are talking here about the 100,000,000,000,000,000,....th fraction of a Newton, will be pulling with DIFFERENT FORCES.
Thus exerting a net force on the rope.
Remember, you are trying to model gravity.
With gravity, F=GMm/r^2 directed towards the other object. That makes them equal by definition.
So they will be pulling with IDENTICAL forces.
In a real situation, you have slight variations and you have a string/rope with mass which can thus be accelerated.
Either the forces average out over time, or you have one pull in more rope and them not meet in the centre.
The burden of proof IS ON YOU, NOT ME.
No. You are claiming there is a contradiction and that |A|!=|B|. As such, the burden is on you to show that is possible for the ideal case of a massless rope.
But as you seem to want to go to a real situation, here it is, still slightly unreal, the 2 boats have masses MX and MY, the rope has a mass of m, and it is located right in the centre of the rope, with the rest of the rope being massless:
X will apply a force of A to the rope (taking note that A can be negative, you don't need to make the force -A, you can leave it as A).
This means the rope will pull back with a force of -A.
Y will apply a force of B to the rope.
Thus the rope will pull back with a force of -B.
Thus the net force on X will be -A, and it will thus accelerate at a rate of -A/MX.
The net force on Y will be -B and it will thus accelerate at a rate of -B/MX.
The net force on the rope will be A+B, and it will thus accelerate at a rate of (A+B)/m.
The tension in the rope will vary. In reality it will vary across the entire rope, but in our example to keep it simple, the tension on the X side of the rope will be |A|. The tension on the Y side will be |B|.
Happy, now we have a situation much closer to reality, where the sting, by virtue of having mass, can now have a net force acting upon it and be accelerated.
If we now let M1 and M2 be equal, and |B|>|A| we note that boat Y will move more and they will not meet in the middle. We also note that the middle of the string will end up on boat Y.
You have to prove that in each and every situation, the two forces will be TOTALLY AND EXACTLY THE SAME.
No. You have to prove that in the ideal case where the string is massless, the forces can be different.
You can't even have this:
Force A = 100.000,000,001
and
Force B = 100.000,000,000
That's right, because in the ideal case of the massless string, that means you have a net force on the string and thus it will be accelerated at an infinite rate.
It won't satisfy the RE requirement as listed above.
Because it is physically impossible.