Good morning people of this beautiful blue dot.
"a) a CONSTANT acceleration on the ball"
-Like to see your calculus with g=G*MEarth/r2 in equation, giving the ball an gravitational acceleration.
Meaning with acceleration and not with constant speed due to gravity.
I'l give you guys some info on this topic so you know where kami and Meatball are talking about.
With constant "force"
The standard example of motion with a constant force is the effect of gravity
here on earth. This is a slight cheat, since of course the gravitational pull
should depend on how far we are from the center of the earth. But if we
do our experiments in a room (even a large room) it’s hard to change this
distance by more than a few meters, while the radius of the earth is measured
in thousands of kilometers, so the changes in distance are only one part in
a million. One can measure forces with enough accuracy to see such effects,
but for now let’s neglect them.
So, in the approximation that we don’t move too far, and hence the pull
of the earth’s gravity is constant, we write
F = −mg You guys see the minus

gravity is negative.
Putting this together with F = ma, we have
m=d2x(t) /dt2 = −mg.
The extraordinary thing is that the mass m appears on both sides of the
equation, so we can cancel it, leaving
d2x(t)/dt2 = −g.
Just so that you know all the words, the mass which appears in F = ma
is called the inertial mass, since this is what determines the inertia of an
object. Inertia expresses the tendency of objects to keep moving in the
absence of forces, and corresponds intuitively to the effort that we have to
expend in stopping of deflecting the object. We also use inertia in everyday
English to mean something quite similar, although not only in reference to
mechanics. In contrast, the mass in F = −mg is called the gravitational
mass, for more obvious reasons. The statement that the masses cancel thus
is the “equivalence of gravitational and inertial masses,” or simply the
“principle of equivalence.”
The essential content of the principle of equivalence is clear from Eq
You actually can’t tell the difference between a little extra acceleration
(on the left hand side of the equation) and slightly stronger gravity
(on the right). Einstein made the point in a thought experiment, imagining
himself trapped in an elevator. Unable to see outside, he argued that
he couldn’t tell the difference between falling freely in a gravitational field
and being accelerated (e.g. by rocket jets attached to the elevator). From
the Newtonian point of view, this equivalence is a coincidence. After all,
there are other forces such as electricity and magnetism which aren’t proportional
to mass, and thus one could have imagined that the gravitational
force wasn’t proportional to mass either. Indeed, you may remember that
when we go beyond the approximation of gravity as a constant force, if two
objects with masses m1 and m2 are a distance r apart, then the force that
one objects exerts on the other is given by
F = −Gm1m2/r2
OR IN OTHER WORDS THE CENTER FROM THE MASS IS NEEDED, THE RADIUS OF THE EARTH.
So i ask again for the fifth time, where does the flat earth society come up with this number 9.8ms2
The gravitational acceleration due to warped space ,
g=G * the Mass of the Earth divided by the radius of the Earth squared.
g=G*EarthMASS/r2
We need,
F=m*g not F=m*a
https://www.princeton.edu/~wbialek/intsci_web/dynamics1.1.pdf