Spin.

Simply an enlightenment of my limited understanding of this topic...

Does FE rotate? I assume it does, since we can visibly see the sun, moon, stars etc. move across the sky at a constant rate.

If so, around which points, planes, direction etc.

FAQ MOAR.

The FE does not rotate.

Soo...The stars movement are caused by an optical illusion? Caused by what? How does the cause keep the illusions so... relative i.e the stars move at the same rates (in degrees per seconds) and in relative arcs?

Go find the FAQ question and post it here and then I will debate it with you.

"A: The sun and moon, each 32 miles in diameter, circle Earth at a height of 3000 miles at its equator, located midway between the North Pole and the ice wall. Each functions similar to a "spotlight," with the sun radiating "hot light," the moon "cold light." As they are spotlights, they only give light out over a certain are which explains why some parts of the Earth are dark when others are light. Their apparent rising and setting are caused by optical illusions."

Well thats not the exact question but at least your trying.

The universe spins above the flat earth around the north Pole like a pinwheel.

Beut wouldn't that cause the stars' minimal gravitational field to eventually drag the FE into a spin with the universe?

No there is Dark Energy in between us and them.  Plus the other planets and stars are so small it is insignificant to the power of the dark side.  I mean to the flat earth.

Why doesn't Dark Energy stop the stars? Does that suggest that the stars are "attached" to something?

Well obviously, they rotate around the north pole.  And the dark energy between us and them are whats pushing them in front of us as we accelerate through the void.

So why doesn't that attachment cause FE to spin WITH the stars?

Additionally...

What feature, other than a rotating spherical surface, causes the Coriolis effect? Where is it's presence in FE?

1 Because there is nothing to cause the spinning


2 Small solar flares.

How do the solar Flares achieves this? And how do they a acheive it in an identical manner when they originate from opposite vectors, depending on the time of day?

A solar flare is a violent explosion in a star's (like the Sun's) atmosphere releasing energy. Solar flares take place in the solar corona and chromosphere, heating plasma to really hot and accelerating electrons, protons and heavier ions to near the speed of light. They produce electromagnetic radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum at all wavelengths from long-wave radio to the shortest wavelength gamma rays. Most flares occur in active regions around sunspots, where intense magnetic fields emerge from the Sun's surface into the corona. Flares are powered by the sudden (timescales of minutes to tens of minutes) release of magnetic energy stored in the corona.  At that point In non-vector terms: at a given rate of rotation of the observer, the magnitude of the Coriolis acceleration of the object is proportional to the velocity of the object and also to the sine of the angle between the direction of movement of the object and the axis of rotation.

The vector formula for the magnitude and direction the Coriolis acceleration is

    \boldsymbol{ a}_C = -2 \, \boldsymbol{ \Omega \times v}

where (here and below) v is the velocity of the particle in the rotating system, and Ω is the angular velocity vector which has magnitude equal to the rotation rate ω and is directed along the axis of rotation of the rotating reference frame, and the × symbol represents the cross product operator.

The equation may be multiplied by the mass of the relevant object to produce the Coriolis force:

    \boldsymbol{ F}_C = -2 \, m \, \boldsymbol{\Omega \times v}.

See fictitious force for a derivation.

The Coriolis effect is the behavior added by the Coriolis acceleration.

But that would reverse the direction of the efect just by turning round. Yet, one would only experience a change here when one crosses a certain point, that is the "equator". What delay the effect of the equation until the crossing of the critical point?

The vector cross product can be evaluated as the determinant of a matrix:



where the vectors i, j, k are unit vectors in the x, y and z directions.

And doesn't the effect need some medium to act through? It would hold if the stars were attached to the FE by some manner, but as postulated earlier, that would cause an angular acceleration

It would except angular motion has direction associated with it and is inherently a vector process. But a point on a rotating wheel is continuously changing direction and it is inconvenient to track that direction. The only fixed, unique direction for a rotating wheel is the axis of rotation, so it is logical to choose this axis direction as the direction of the angular velocity. Left with two choices about direction, it is customary to use the right hand rule to specify the direction of angular quantities

Apologies, But I'm unfamiliar with the right had rule in conjunction with rotational dynamics. Could you elaborate? Thumb=? Index=? Middle=?

Sure, as an example of the directions of angular quantities, consider a vector angular velocity. If a force acts tangential to the wheel to speed it up, it follows that the change in angular velocity and therefore the angular acceleration are in the direction of the axis. Newton's 2nd law for rotation implies that the torque is also in the axis direction. The angular momentum will also be in this direction, so in this example, all of these angular quantities act along the axis of rotation.

I'm really sorry, but I can't quite follow your logic. Would that not still induce a rotation of some description?

No because, in three dimensions, the angular velocity becomes a bit more complicated. The angular velocity in this case is generally thought of as a vector, or more precisely, a pseudovector. It now has not only a magnitude, but a direction as well. The magnitude is the angular speed, and the direction describes the axis of rotation. The right-hand rule indicates the positive direction of the angular velocity pseudovector, namely:

    If you curl the fingers of your right hand to follow the direction of the rotation, then the direction of the angular velocity vector is indicated by your right thumb.

Just as in the two dimensional case, a particle will have a component of its velocity along the radius from the origin to the particle, and another component perpendicular to that radius. The combination of the origin point and the perpendicular component of the velocity defines a plane of rotation in which the behavior of the particle (for that instant) appears just as it does in the two dimensional case. The axis of rotation is then a line perpendicular to this plane, and this axis defined the direction of the angular velocity pseudovector, while the magnitude is the same as the pseudoscalar value found in the 2-dimensional case. Define a unit vector \hat{n} which points in the direction of the angular velocity pseudovector.

Right, OK...

Barrell scratching, but OK...

I'm sure FE spins, by the way.

Wouldn't a massive explosion, such as Nagasaki etc. cause a downwards force, causing FE to spin?

No the earth is an infinite plane.  Its too massive for something like that to happen.

SHHHHHHH!!!! your giving away my secrets. 

You've been Wiki-ing me!? tch tch tch... I'm ashamed