No, they DID know that the Sun didn't physically RISE UP at all. They already knew the Earth's surface was flat, and that objects in the distance on and above the Earth's extremely MASSIVE flat surface, would appear when close enough to see from any point on the surface, while they also had travelled to points on Earth far away, and knew the Sun's position above Earth, is in cycles, in a circular pattern.
No, they didn't.
They may have believed Earth was flat, but they certainly didn't know.
The ancient FE models have more in common with the modern RE model than the modern FE piles of garbage.
The ancient FE models had the sun physically set. It would literally go below Earth, and that is why it was night.
It was called a sunset because they thought it was literally setting.
Anyone who understands basic perspective knows that it has nothing at all to do with distance, as the sun's angular size remaining the same means the distance remains the same.
So the ancient model had the sun circle around Earth, going above and below it.
Once they realised that Earth was round, they kept the terms to describe the sun.
Nice try, anyway, but it doesn't compare with the term fall, which describes anything above the Earth's surface which goes downward to it, or a lower position than it was earlier.
It doesn't really compare, because objects do fall.
The reason why they fall doesn't change if they fall or not.
Gravity pulling them down to Earth as the fall doesn't mean they are not falling.
But it does show another dishonest double standard again.
When you think the terminology portrays something differently to the RE model you latch onto it and pretend it is a problem for the RE model, but when the same could be said for the FE model, you say it isn't an issue.
If the use of the word "fall" is such an issue for the RE model, then the use of the words "sunrise" and "sunset" are vastly larger issues for your delusional fantasy.
But to you, things do NOT fall downward
They most certainly do. The question is why do they fall?
You believe it is because of pure magic, while we accept it is because of gravity.
Here is a simple definition of fall for you:
"move from a higher to a lower level, typically rapidly and without control."
Why does this preclude gravity pulling the object down?
If gravity pulls an object downwards (from a higher to a lower level), quite rapidly and without control by the object, that is a fall.
i.e. Gravity makes things fall.
So why shouldn't we use the term "fall" to describe a fall caused by gravity?
you believe they are all 'pulled down' to Earth's surface, by a magical, made up force
No, that would be you.
YOU are the one that believes in pure magic which makes no sense at all and has no evidence for it.
Instead, we believe in a force that has been experimentally verified countless times, and which match all the requirements for an actual force.
Those of you who say 'gravity' exists, and that it is within all objects, but Earth has much more of it than anything else, except things which are larger, like the Sun, among others, which have more 'gravity' than Earth does.
Stop just blatantly misrepresenting it.
Gravity is a force. It isn't inside Earth.
Earth has mass.
And that mass will attract other mass.
Earth is much more massive than other nearby objects, so there will be a stronger force towards it.
But yes, the sun is more massive, however it is also much further away.
The force is gravity is proportional to mass, but inversely proportional to the square of the distance.
And because Earth is in free fall, relative to Earth you would only experience the tidal force, which is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance.
A pull or pulling down from below, is obviously NOT a fall, it is entirely different from a fall, except that both are acts of downward motion of objects in air, above the surface of Earth, that is.
Why?
Because you boldly proclaim it isn't, even though you cannot articulate why at all?
Just what part of the definition of the word "fall" excludes gravity being the cause of that fall?
To claim that everything that exists, has 'gravity' within it, demands extraordinary, thorough evidence for it.
Again, everything doesn't "have gravity".
It has mass, which results in an attractive force known as gravity.
This has mountains of evidence to support it.
You burying your head in the sand doesn't magically make all that evidence cease to exist.
At least you should use the proper TERM for it, and stop using MY term for it, which I DO believe is true.
We aren't using your delusional BS.
We aren't claiming that the object is magically deciding to go towards the surface of origin, but only ever down, even though sometimes the surface of origin is in a different direction (including up some times), and so on.
So no, we certainly are not using your delusional BS.