We are told that the motivation for the Gregorian reform was that the Julian calendar assumes that the time between vernal equinoxes is 365.25 days, when in fact it is about 11 minutes less. The accumulated error between these values was about 10 days (starting from the Council of Nicaea) when the reform was made, resulting in the equinox occurring on March 11 and moving steadily earlier in the calendar, also by the 16th century AD the winter solstice fell around December 11.
So we have three options:
1. History is real, the Council of Nicaea did occur in the year 325 AD; this in turn validates Ptolemy and Hipparchus as real historical figures, i.e., axial precession is proven.
2. History is fake (at least before 1800 AD), the Gregorian calendar never took place in 1582 AD, no historical proof for the axial precession of the Earth, much easier to prove that now the Earth does not orbit the Sun.
3. History is real, but the Gregorian calendar reform was faked anyway.
There you go with more logical leaps and failing to address the issue.
Point 1 is not complete.
The historical record is not necessarily proof of axial precession.
Some people will claim the record is inaccurate, but not fake, or otherwise claim it does not prove axial precession.
But that isn't even the hard part.
Number 2 doesn't actually show that Earth must be flat.
That is the much harder part.
If all of history was faked, it wouldn't magically mean Earth is flat.
That is what you need to show, how if history is fake it magically means Earth is flat, because there is no logical connection between the 2.
You could try claiming that history was faked to try to prove Earth is round, but that doesn't mean that Earth is flat, all it means is that that "proof" is unsound.
But showing a proof of something is unsound doesn't make the opposite true.
How does history being fake magically make Earth flat?
Especially when the ending is outright false.
It is much easier today to prove that Earth orbits the sun than it was in the past.
However, there is a most definite test for these assertions, the total solar eclipse which occurred right on the vernal equinox (1643 AD, March 20 and 1662 AD, March 20):
Does not directly test any of those options you provide.
Sure, there is the fact that the RE model so nicely explains eclipses that any eclipse is strong evidence for the RE, but that is getting distracted from the issue.
Option three is no longer available. Neither is option #1. We are left with option #2.
Option 3 was never available because it is a contradiction.
You have failed to show how option 1 is not.
Links to your private thread which is off limits for debate are worthless. If you want to provide a link, provide a link to a location where your false claims can be refuted.