jackblack, your ramblings are meaningless and they have ALREADY BEEN ADDRESSED RIGHT HERE:
https://www.theflatearthsociety.org/forum/index.php?topic=82968.msg2203590#msg2203590PAGE 1 OF THIS VERY THREAD
Here is STOKES' THEOREM applied to the light interferometer:

You derived the formula for the LEFT SIDE OF THE EQUATION.
I derived the formula for the RIGHT SIDE OF THE EQUATION.
Are you able to understand this very simple thing?
Now, for the MGX/RLGs, there will also be a factor of proportionality: R/L.
R x
x LThis factor of proportionality was proven, for the first time, for the LISA Space Antenna:
https://www.theflatearthsociety.org/forum/index.php?topic=30499.msg1985230#msg1985230
Again, please try and understand.
You derived the CORIOLIS EFFECT formula, the left hand side of Stokes' line integral applied to the light interferometer.
I derived the SAGNAC EFFECT formula, the right hand side.
Your formula is proportional to the area of the interferometer.
My formula is proportional to the velocity of the light beams.
Unless you can understand this very fact, there is nothing else anyone here can do for you.
Like I said before, if you want to call it that, go ahead, that doesn't mean it isn't the Sagnac formula nor that it doesn't describe the actual shift.But it is the CORIOLIS EFFECT.
Which is COMPLETELY DIFFERENT than the SAGNAC EFFECT.
It can't be the SAGNAC EFFECT.
The CORIOLIS EFFECT is a physical effect on the light beams, a slight modification of their path.
The SAGNAC EFFECT is an electromagnetic effect, the modification of the velocities of the light beams.
They cannot be the same.
You seem to be very confused.
You are running circles within your own mind, unable to acknowledge the reality: you derived the CORIOLIS EFFECT, while I derived the SAGNAC EFFECT.
My formula is completely validated by Professor's Yeh own derivation, published in the Journal of Optics Letters.
Yet, you will not understand these very basic facts, and are continuing to SPAM and TROLL this forum.