I have to admit, its almost impossible to parse this globularist barble and I am an expert in mathematics. What exactly are you asking?!
This has nothing to do with the globe. If you were an expert in math you would understand quite simply.
In general, if you have a function f(x), and in inverse function to that, e.g. g(x), then g(f(x))=x.
That is, if you take a number, put it into a function, and then put that result into the inverse function, you get your original number back.
Multiplication and division is a simple example of this.
If you take a function f(x)=b*x, then the inverse function g(x)=x/b.
Thus g(f(x))=f(x)/b=(b*x)/b=x.
You can also get that from the relation I gave, but I will spell it out a bit more:
Assuming "a", "b" and "c" are all finite, non-zero, real numbers; assuming the relation a*b=c holds, then does the relation a=c/b also hold?
Does that make it easy enough for an "expert" like you to understand?