@FlatEarthDenial: You know, I think we were all glad when you left linguistforum.com.
@FlatOrRoundAgnostic: Please, don't post while you are on drugs!
What do you guys think about the controversy over PIE having voiceless aspirates? I think it's actually very plausible that it did have (mainstream linguistics holds that it didn't). Consider the pairs of Latin and Ancient Greek words such as "sapientia" and "sophia". Both of them mean "wisdom", and appear to be obviously related. Yet, if you assume PIE didn't have voiceless aspirates, the Latin word points to the reconstructed PIE root *seh2p, and the Ancient Greek word points to the reconstruction *soHbh. However, if you assume PIE did have voiceless aspirates, you can reconstruct the root *seh2ph, from which both the Latin and the Ancient Greek word can be derived. I wonder what you think about that?