I recognize that several posts have been made between your post and this response. This response applies to the post as originally made.
Alpha2Omega, one day you will be one of the best FET apologist, this day is not so far away...
"So you're technically right that neither of these things is 'proven', but, for the same reason, you'll never be able to 'prove' your model, either."
Sorry, but i am not just technically right, i am absolutely right!
Had there been any way to prove that the Earth is submitted to any kind of motion, scientists would have supplied us with these proofs up until now, and by doing this they would have provided immortal fame for themselves.
I kind of figured you'd latch on to that sentence and ignore the rest.
Fine. You're right that these can't be 'proven'; that's what I said. By the same token you can't 'prove' earth doesn't move, either. You can offer evidence, but you can't 'prove' anything. To see why, read the rest of that part of the post.
How about the proofs for the immobility of the Earth?
There are none. But you're going to offer what you consider evidence.
Allow me to present you some of them:
1. Observing the sun directly from the north pole the apparent motion of the sun would be straight line for days, and a camera should have to be slightly adjusted every few hours to cancel out scarcelly perceptible effect due to Earth's alleged rotation which speed is practically zero at North Pole.
Why haven't we seen until this day any such video which could have easily proved Earth's daily rotation? Lack of such video speaks for itself, and presents indirect but strong proof that there is no reason for making such video because such video would prove something else (that the Earth is at rest), and scientists are aware of that truth very well!
Really? Have you tried Google? It's pretty cool and very useful for finding stuff like
midnight sun video
First hit is a link to a youtube video of 24 hours of direct sunlight from the Arctic.
The earth spins at exactly the same angular rate everywhere (360° / sidereal day); the tangential velocity depends on latitude, but the angular rotation is what matters here, and is everywhere the same.
I suppose I
am grateful that you didn't simply say "all scientists are liars", so thank you for that. You obviously still mean it, and are still wrong, but this is an improvement, I think.
2. If the Earth was rotating about its axis, someone in Quito, Ecuador would be traveling twice as fast from west to east as someone in Oslo, Norway – at any moment, and at every moment. Meanwhile, someone looking at from the proverbial North Pole, would hardly be moving at all! But is that reality?
Is the correction above (
removed replaced) what you meant to say? If not, please advise.
Yes, it is real if you're talking about tangential velocity. If you're talking about angular velocity, then
no, they are all the same. When viewing distant celestial objects, the tangential velocity is insignificant, but angular velocity is very significant.
Of course it is not reality, but this supposed fact of Earth's rotation now becomes deadliest error of all, concerning supposed differences of Earth rotational speeds at different latitudes.
If these differences were really the true fact then the speed of apparent motion of all celestial bodies would be twice greater for any observer on the equator than it would be for any observer on the latitude of Oslo.
No. Apparent motion of celestial bodies doesn't depend on the tangential velocity of the observer. It depends only on the angular rate the observer's frame of reference is changing with respect to what he's looking at. This, as already noted, is the same everywhere on earth - Oslo, Quito, north pole.
How hard would be to make an experiment (measurement) of such kind???
It's not hard at all and been done many time with the expected result: the earth rotates exactly as proposed.
3a) If the atmosphere were independent (non rotating but static) from Earth's daily rotation then we would have on the surface of the Earth permanent winds that blow 600 to 1600 km/h. Do you notice permanent winds which blow at such a speed?
No such winds are observed, as you well know, therefore the conjecture is false.
3b) If the atmosphere were rotating along with the Earth the air flow at the surface of the Earth would have variable velocity (not the thermal), variable pressure (not the static), and variable density (not the normal). Such air flow and such air pressure regimes do not exist: http://www.energeticforum.com/256388-post62.html
In that linked post, you seem to posit supersonic winds near the equator, Mach 1 winds near 45° latitude, and subsonic winds at higher latitudes. Isn't that the same model as 3a), which we both agree is not correct?
If your point in that post is that relative to inertial space, that air
coupled to the rotation of the Earth is physically moving at various Mach numbers, well, so what? The ground (and your measuring device) is also moving
at the same velocity, so the relative velocity between them (earth and air), which is what matters, is typically a gentle zephyr due to thermal effects. Your pitotstatic tube is going to register the gentle zephyr, not a supersonic gale. Since the instrument illustrated in Fig. 2.1, attached to the Earth, is moving in tandem with the air, which is coupled to and not moving with respect to the earth (neglecting slight winds), there is no Flow, and V = 0.
BTW the term "perpendicular to motion" at the top of Fig. 2.1 of the linked post is wrong. It's "parallel to motion". Note that the white arrows assigned to the former are
parallel to the latter, so one can't be perpendicular to motion and the other parallel to motion; they are both going the same way. If you want anyone competent to buy into what you're saying, you're at least going to have to get the basics right, which takes some effort and understanding. If you're just looking to "sell" something to unknowing people, please stop questioning other people's motives.
4. If the Earth were suffering a daily rotation it would generate an incredible deflection on all flying matters in air atmosphere. 5) The inertial motion is terminated in air atmosphere, and thus all dropped objects should land behind their starting positions on a rotating Earth. http://www.energeticforum.com/255938-post21.html
"inertial motion is terminated in air atmosphere" Why do you think this is true? Did you read it somewhere? Do you have any evidence that this is actually the case?
Air applies drag against objects moving within it, which resists the motion. Inertia is preserved, but slowly transferred from the moving object to the air.
5. To be pression or to be gravity? The choice of Earth’s rotation (the cause of pression), should repel the gravity from Earth. Consequently, the heliocentric model looses the most precious element. The choice of gravity should remove the concept of Earth’s rotation from the cosmos motion, consequently; the journey of the Earth around the sun becomes useless since half of the Earth should be always in darkness and the second half should be always in lightness.
Presson? What does this mean? It's French for "pressure" (I think), but even with that substitution this still reads like nonsense. Can you restate this?
6. No experiment has ever been performed with such excruciating persistence and meticulous precision, and in every conceivable manner, than that of trying to detect and measure the motion of the Earth. Yet they have all consistently and continually yielded a velocity for the Earth of exactly ZERO mph.
Stating this, even using florid language, doesn't mean it's true. Are you quoting Rowbotham again?
There are many experiments that support a rotating earth, not least, the variation of gravity as a function of latitude.
The toil of thousands of exasperated researchers, in the extremely varied experiments of Arago, De Coudre's induction, Fizeau, Fresnell drag, Hoek, Jaseja's lasers, Jenkins, Klinkerfuess, Michelson-Morley interferometry, Lord Rayleigh's polarimetry, Troughton-Noble torque, and the famous 'Airy's Failure' experiment, all conclusively failed to show any rotational or translational movement for the earth, whatsoever."
http://www.sacred-texts.com/earth/za/za21.htm
I don't see any of those names in the cited link.
The linked article is so wrong it would be funny, except way too many people might accept it because of the Victorian-Era language and a desire to disbelieve what competent high-school physics shows, perhaps because they weren't any good at high-school physics.
The fundamental flaw is here (from your linked text):
Let the ball be thrown upwards from the mast-head of a stationary ship, and it will fall back to the mast-head, and pass downwards to the foot of the mast. The same result would follow if the ball were thrown upwards from the mouth of a mine, or the top of a tower, on a stationary earth. Now put the ship in motion, and let the ball be thrown upwards. It will, as in the first instance, partake of the two motions--the upward or vertical, A, C, and the horizontal, A, B, as shown in fig. 47; but
FIG. 47.
because the two motions act conjointly, the ball will take the diagonal direction, A, D [actually, it will follow a parabolic path a from A to D despite the incorrect assertion in the final paragraph in this section]. By the time the ball has arrived at D, the ship will have reached the position, [ B]; and now, as the two forces will have been expended, [hold it right there! The upward motion will be 'expended' because gravity is causing a downward acceleration, but the horizontal component continues as before - what is resisting it?] the ball will begin to fall, by the force of gravity alone, in the vertical direction, D, B, H; [no, it won't; it will accelerate downward, but still continues to the right because nothing (except drag, which is gradual, not abrupt) is slowing the motion in that direction] but during its fall towards H, the ship will have passed on to the position S, leaving the ball at H, a given distance behind it [no, it will meet the ship at S, because there's no reason that motion to the right will suddenly stop at D - why would it?].
7. NO CAUSE OF EARTH'S ROTATION WHATSOEVER: retains the state of illusion. The most important element in heliocentric model is the Earth’s rotation about its polar axis. What is the cause of Earth’s rotation? No one has attributed the cause of Earth’s rotation to any type of action or force even though they have attributed the cause of orbital motion (revolution) to Newton’s law of gravity.
Conservation of momentum from the formation of the solar system.
8. NO CAUSE OF THE ROTATION OF THE AIR-LAYER: 2) The rotation of the air-layer next to the rigid Earth is without cause, and lacks a technique and tool. Perhaps, one may envision the whole rigid sphere undergoes a rotation about its polar axis. But, how one can envision the air atmosphere (the surface layer) rotates with the rigid sphere without an engineering method (e.g.air foil). In addition, what maintains the air’s rotation for tens of thousands of years (we are practical people) without stop. The rotation of the background air is the greatest hoax ever invented by mankind.
Viscous drag from the surface. If you take a glass of water and rotate the glass a few times, the water will overcome its inertia and rotate with it. This isn't mysterious and easily seen.
9. CONCLUSIVE INFERENCE ABOUT THE EQUATION OF TIME ISSUE: http://theflatearthsociety.org/forum/index.php?topic=62199.msg1637435#msg1637435
You're still confused about what that graph means. Already refuted
here. Stamping your foot and insisting "I'm right, all the rest of you are wrong" is called a tantrum, not proof.
Arthur Eddington dared to contemplate that:
"There was just one alternative; the earth's true velocity through space might happen to have been nil."
Lincoln Barnett agrees:
"No physical experiment ever proved that the Earth actually is in motion."
Where are these quotes from? They sound like they're taken out of context.
So, when all attempts to prove any kind of motion of the Earth FAIL, what does it mean?
It means that the contrary is the fact: The Earth is at rest!
It means no such thing. Failure to 'prove' the earth moves is not itself 'proof' that earth is at rest. See why scientists refrain from saying they can prove something
a few posts ago after your points 4. and 5. The
evidence (not 'proof') is strongly in favor of a moving earth, and weak to nonexistent for a fixed earth.
Every failure of all these attempts presents the proof to the contrary : The Earth is at rest!
Negative. Failure to prove something doesn't automatically prove an alternative. You should know that.
If you don't want to make me laugh, then you cannot just say: O.K., we have failed to prove Earth's motion but there is still some chance that we could succeed to prove it in some distant future?
In how distant future? When we inhabit another galaxy? Come on, cut the crap, please![/b][/u]
See why scientists refrain from saying they can prove something
a few posts ago after your points 4. and 5..
Anyway, if you had used the correct figure, it would have made your next point stronger (but still wrong).
EXACTLY! Thanks for helping me make it TWICE stronger!
What does "direction of the stars will have greatly changed, however small the angle of parallax maybe" mean? Isn't "direction ... will have greatly changed" the opposite of "however small the angle"?
Here is the answer:
In the " History of the Conflict between Religion and Science," by Dr. Draper, pages 175 and 176, the matter is referred to m the following words :
" Among the arguments brought forward against the Copernican system at the time of its promulgation, was one by the great Danish astronomer, Tycho Brahe, originally urged by Aristarchus against the Pythagorean system, to the effect that if, as was alleged, the earth moves round the sun, there ought to he a change in the relative position of the stars ; they should seem to separate as we approach them, or to close together as we recede from them... At that time the sun's distance was greatly under-estimated. Had it been known, as it is now, that the distance exceeds 90 million miles, or that the diameter of the orbit is more than 180 million, that argument would doubtless have had very great weight. In reply to Tycho, it was said that, since the parallax of a body diminishes as its distance increases, a star may be so far off that its parallax may be imperceptible. THIS ANSWER PROVED TO BE CORRECT."
To the uninitiated, the words " this answer proved to be correct," might seem to settle the matter, and while it must be admitted that parallax is diminished or increased according as the star is distant or near, parallax and direction are very different terms and convey quite different meanings. Tycho stated that the direction of the stars would be altered ; his critics replied that the distance gave no sensible difference of parallax. This maybe set down as ingenious, but it is no answer to the proposition, which has remained unanswered to this hour, and is unanswerable.
What's the problem? You're still wrong. Even with a 180-million-mile baseline (instead of your erroneous 90 million), the stars are so distant that parallax was imperceptible to Tycho. With better instruments and better techniques, stellar parallax is no longer imperceptible. That last paragraph makes little sense. Exactly what is meant by 'direction' that is different from 'parallax' in this context? Their positions appear to shift as we move in orbit; that's parallax.
Why is this difficult to understand?
Stamping your foot and insisting "I'm right, all the rest of you are wrong" is called a tantrum, not proof.
I guess we're done with your objection to Crux being circumpolar. Remember, you said yourself that it was.
Have you solved the apparent retrograde motion of the outer planets yet?
[Edit] Minor corrections and formatting fixes needed due to hitting Post instead of Preview.