Why is ice slippery?
A combination of factors, applied pressure to melt the surface layer/ frictional heating to melt the surface layer. At lower temperatures however the phase properties of ice become quite complicated. In essence the bonds at the surface of the water are weaker, as you would imagine, and the structure of ice has a high free energy facilitating a "semi-liquid" state for these surface molecules. Basically the surface of ice is a very thin liquid and we all know liquids are slippery.
hmmm
not intending to be argumentative, but then you don't actually know "lots of science?"
what you meant to say was that there are some things in science of which you have some knowledge, and other things in science of which you are ignorant.
how easy is it for you to tell the difference?
Well being pedantic, and you do love pedantry, a "lot" is a noun defined as "A particular group, collection, or set of people or things." So I do know particular collections of science, most of them lie in physics but I also have A level Biology and Chemistry knowledge. So I do know "lots of science" and "there are some things in science of which I have some knowledge and other things in science of which I'm ignorant".
So is quite hard for me to see the difference, given they can mean the same thing.
Good morning, Physicist.
I wonder how many planets orbeting the star BD +5deg 1668.
And what explains the anomalous spin of protons?
I don't know off the top of my head. But this paper seems to have the answers.
http://www.annualreviews.org/doi/pdf/10.1146/annurev.aa.13.090175.001455There are several ideas but at the minute none that are satisfactory. However the main issue with the proton spin crisis is due to its measurement. A quantum mechanical objects properties only exist within the limitations that the observation allows it to. A better measurement system needs to be constructed before we can start to determine the scale of the "anomaly". How much do you know / want to know? Are you an interested in science or did you just google "unsolved physics problems"? There are several papers I could link you to and I could help explain anything you had issues understanding.
Isn't there a couple of issues though that we are glossing over? Roundy knows the answers to the questions that he is asking. The gravitron is as of now just a hypothetical particle that corresponds to the gravitational force. This however contradicts Einstien's theory that gravity is not a force, that it is the bending of spacetime. This is why time, something without even hypothetical particles, could be effected by it. But I obviously don't have to explain to you that relativity and quantum mechanics are not unified, and currently don't even play well together.
Now of course I could be wrong. I have not taken a Quantum mechanics course, and I have never taken a math based Physics course. However If you spend a large amount of time in Astro courses like I do, then you pick up the general issues regarding the two competeing theories.
Science currently does not have a great explanation for gravity, some even hypthesize that M theory would allow for gravity to be a force that is leaking in from the 11th dimension, also known as a parrallel universe. This would explain why it is such a comparitvly weak force.
Really Roundy is just waiting for you to admit that like all scientists you don't really understand what is going on, and that you have no evidence for the puller particle that you described, except to say that the other forces have particles that correspond to them. And even if there is a puller particle, it is at this point incompatible with the idea that gravity is not a force, but rather the curvature of spacetime.
Now Like I said earlier, I could be butchering all of this. But If i am, please explain what I am getting wrong, I love to learn more.
You are not butchering anything. You are right there is no unified theory between relativity and QED but that doesn't mean that they disprove each other. If you have very strong evidence for the first theory and very strong evidence for the second theory then the inability to figure out the maths connecting the two doesn't affect the strength of the evidence, just suggests an inability to do the maths.
Also what Bowler said. Treating something as "not a force" doesn't stop it being a force in the layman sense. Just affects the mathematical construct.