
This is obviously false, but does anyone have any disproof, other than proving that pi is approximately 3.14159265358979...?
My initial response was that of fractal dimensions. I don't think you can ascribe a length to this construction in the usual manner, as fractals tend to be 1.x dimensional.
Another, more grounded disproof is through calculus. The derivative as any given point on a circle, in Cartesian coordinates is non-trivial, but solvable or at least defined. However, if the infinite triangles case, the derivative doesn't exist anywhere, as it is not mathematically smooth in the limit sense.
Thoughts?