I've seen several advocates of the notion that atheists can chose heaven by becoming theists,
And does this imply that it is correct?
No. This is an introductory section explaining the scope of my response.
response to what? it was stated in your op to the thread.
My response to those "several advocates of the notion that atheists can chose heaven by becoming theists". It is quoted above.
That being said, it is my contention that environmental factors are relevant, because changing the one variable for a group from another control group reveals this trend, regardless of whether or not they are directly related or another hidden variable is connecting them. If the correlation is a result of indirect ties to the true cause, environment can still be considered a relevant condition (perhaps to allow the circumstances of the hidden variable).
You are still working under the hypothesis that believing in god is enough to get you in heaven.
It's called a premise.
Regardless of syntax, your logical fallacy stands.
A premise is an acknowledged assumption; not a fallacy. It just mean the argument only applies under those conditions. Premises allow us to make progress in thought experiments. For instance, virtually everything you think starts with the premise that the universe exists.
Also, I do not see why you think my argument has changed, but you
are free to ask questions if you think the post is unclear.
I will address the question you had posted in your op:
My question is a simple one. If god is omniscient and omnipotent, he knows what environmental factors he could change to guide a person to theism but chooses contrary ones putting them at a religious disadvantage. For every person who would be a theist if they were exposed to the right social environment, perceived miracles, et cetera, they are given an environment contrary to those mentalities, god is in essence choosing their destination for them.
Red text - Yes.
Green text - How do you know what religious disadvantage is?
I don't have to know what they are for them to exist. ...Unless you are denying environmental causation? Or are your denying the possibility for religious mentalities to be diminished by experiences? I can only attempt to give theoretical examples, but I am not omniscient. If that denial is a product of your thinking that religious influence can't be confirmed, I'd agree. I was giving the most intuitive example I could think of to to use as a figurehead for any 'nurture' influences.
If your objection more universal than a possible example, the implied existence of causation, I'd concede that yes, causation is another interesting argument which I was going to leave alone for simplicity of this one. For a practical discussion in an unrelated matter, I optimistically assumed we could all agree that causation by environmental factors is reasonable, but if considering it a premise of its own helps, I'd be happy to clarify it as such.
Blue text - How do you know that they are given opposite environmental conditions than the ones that would inspire them to believe in God. And, of course God would choose the direction for them if he was omniscient and omnipotent.
I am not using real people in this example... I am defining them to be 'on the fence' between theism and atheism just as I am defining their experiences to be constructive or destructive to certain beliefs.
For the bolded part, I'm not sure what your trying to say. Is this asking for justification for a conclusion that if god had those qualities he would not behave this way? Because I don't belief I made that conclusion. Are you asking how I can comment on god's role in the divine plan? Because that's definitional.