FE Gravity

I have a couple of problems with gravity (or 'gravitation' if you want to be anal). If gravity is caused by the Earth accelerating upwards, then why is the inverse square law applicable to gravity? The other one takes longer to type out, and I'm tired and lazy, so I won't post it until tomorrow.

Use the search function, you will find no rational answers at all other than "gravity/gravitation does not exist" or "you forgot energy which also has gravity which is for some reason relevant right now".

I have a couple of problems with gravity (or 'gravitation' if you want to be anal). If gravity is caused by the Earth accelerating upwards, then why is the inverse square law applicable to gravity? The other one takes longer to type out, and I'm tired and lazy, so I won't post it until tomorrow.

This question is synonymous to asking, if 4+4 is 8, why is 2*4 applicable to get 8 as well?

Quote from: jimztar on July 03, 2008, 05:17:04 AM

I have a couple of problems with gravity (or 'gravitation' if you want to be anal). If gravity is caused by the Earth accelerating upwards, then why is the inverse square law applicable to gravity? The other one takes longer to type out, and I'm tired and lazy, so I won't post it until tomorrow.

This question is synonymous to asking, if 4+4 is 8, why is 2*4 applicable to get 8 as well?

Not really. If the Earth was accelerating upwards at 9.8ms^-2, then acceleration due to gravity would be the same from any distance. That's not the case.

Not really. If the Earth was accelerating upwards at 9.8ms^-2, then acceleration due to gravity would be the same from any distance. That's not the case.

Gravitational pull from nearby celestial bodies causes the acceleration differentials.

Quote from: jimztar on July 03, 2008, 06:40:35 AM

Not really. If the Earth was accelerating upwards at 9.8ms^-2, then acceleration due to gravity would be the same from any distance. That's not the case.

Gravitational pull from nearby celestial bodies causes the acceleration differentials.

Unverified.

Unverified.

This. Can you provide any evidence?

Quote from: jimztar on July 03, 2008, 05:17:04 AM

I have a couple of problems with gravity (or 'gravitation' if you want to be anal). If gravity is caused by the Earth accelerating upwards, then why is the inverse square law applicable to gravity? The other one takes longer to type out, and I'm tired and lazy, so I won't post it until tomorrow.

This question is synonymous to asking, if 4+4 is 8, why is 2*4 applicable to get 8 as well?

No it isn't.

Yes, it is; it's non-sequitur.

Quote from: jimztar on July 03, 2008, 06:40:35 AM

Not really. If the Earth was accelerating upwards at 9.8ms^-2, then acceleration due to gravity would be the same from any distance. That's not the case.

Gravitational pull from nearby celestial bodies causes the acceleration differentials.

This and the fact the earth probably produces a nearly indiscernible gravitation if we conclude GR is correct.

Yes, it is; it's non-sequitur.

No, s/he's saying "If the Earth is accelerating upwards, downward acceleration cannot depend on height, but it does." It's not a non-sequiter, s/he just didn't know about the "gravitational pull of the stars".