I'm going to assume your views are based on this verse of the bible: "Man should not lay with a man as he lays with a woman."
Basically this means your argument is, "Because the bible says so."
Already this is a shaky bridge, but does it really?
At first glance, this passage seems to be against homosexuality, but that's without noting the context of the times. When the bible was written, women were considered subservient to men, and had to follow their orders. This verse was saying that a man should not be subservient to another man, thus homosexuality is allowed in the bible, so long as one member of the relationship is not subservient to the other.
A more accurate translation would be:
"A man should not give orders to a man as he would to a woman."
So, the bible actually says nothing in regards to homosexuality.