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**Flat Earth Q&A / The Cavendish Experiment**

« **on:**January 24, 2007, 11:49:03 AM »

Quote from: "CharlesJohnson"

Quote from: "Tom Bishop"Gravity still exists to some extent in the current FE model. It's just not the primary force that keeps your feet on the ground.

If it did exist then the gravity exerted by your giant plane would drop off

as 1/d (d being the distance from the plane) Not 1/(d^2) which

experiment clearly shows.

But suppose the force we felt were a combination of gravity and the "inertia due to acceleration" That still wouldnt make F proportional to 1/(d^2).

You're screwed

admit it!

Why would 1/d express the force of gravity rather than 1/d^2?

Quote from: "Newton's Inverse Square Law"

Any point source which spreads its influence equally in all directions without a limit to its range will obey the inverse square law. This comes from strictly geometrical considerations. The intensity of the influence at any given radius (r) is the source strength divided by the area of the sphere. Being strictly geometric in its origin, the inverse square law applies to diverse phenomena. Point sources of gravitational force, electric field, light, sound, and radiation obey the inverse square law.

I understand that as a sphere, it is easier to work with the earth's gravity as a point source, than if it was a disk, but even a disk would be subject to a slightly modified version, which is why a disk just wouldn't work with gravity, the whole flat thing would get very subjective as gravity would pull things toward the middle instead of "Down".