If Einstein had dreamed up E=MC2 would his theories be any less valid?
If Newton had dreamed up F=MA would his theories be any less valid?
If Stephen Hawking had dreamed up his theory of expanding space-time would his theory be any less valid?
The difference is between having something revealed to you in a dream that can later be verified and tested in the material world; and something revealed to you in a dream that only the dream itself is evidence for. I believe the latter is what the OP is asking about.
If I dream up 1+1=2 I don't need to test out my equation in the real world for it to be valid. The equation was already validated in my dream.
This is erroneous thinking, you are using an example that you know is true before you even had the dream. You already knew 1+1=2, so dreaming about 1+1=2 does not contribute and valid evidence to a fact that was already known ahead of time.
If Newton had dreamed up F=MA, if Einstein had dreamed up E=MC
2, if Stephen Hawking had dreamed up his theory of expanding space-time, then they would all still have to study the idea in the real world and demonstrate (provide real world evidence) that it was (at least somewhat) an accurate reflection of reality. Just dreaming up anything and submitting that as your sole source of evidence is not credible by itself without further external testing and study of the idea itself, not the dream interpretation in particular.